From: | Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com> |
To: | Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk> |
Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk> | |
Prof. Jane Stapleton <bjs48@cam.ac.uk> | |
Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk> | |
Date: | 18/01/2021 22:33:49 |
Subject: | [Spam?] Re: [Spam?] RE: COVID, insurance and causation |
A few points from me:
First, the but for test was not abandoned. It is fundamentally what the insurance indemnity is doing, as I explained before. What would the business have earned but for the insured peril (allowing
for everything else in the world)? Here, on construction, you take out the insured peril and the underlying originating cause. Para 268: “the aim of such clauses is to arrive at the results that would have been achieved but for the insured peril and circumstances
arising out of the same underlying or originating cause”. This explains the chef.
Second, you do need interpretation to get there, not merely an identification of the ordinary meaning of ‘cause’ or ‘followed’ or ‘consequence’ or anything else. The policies being considered here
are policies triggered by an occurrence of a notifiable disease within 25 miles or 1 mile. But there are other policies triggered by danger in the vicinity that lost at first instance and were not appealed (even though the occurrence of the disease counted
as a danger). These could be fought further, but on the current state of the law the 25 mile/1 mile clauses give cover because the nature of the ordinary cover is for diseases that will be within and outside the area and will affect the business through public
authority action reacting to widespread illness. So on the proper construction, the causation required must bend to that. (Just as intention affects the prox cause test in more ordinary situations- Stansbie v Troman, the abnormal human intervention of the
thief does not break the chain because of the purpose of the duty of care broken.) In contrast, for the danger in the vicinity it can be said (and the High Court accepted) that the cover contemplates a much more local issue and much more local response and
so does not have to (is not intended to) give cover where the disease goes outside the specified vicinity/premises. The causation rules applied, therefore, are more demanding, and include ‘but for’. The danger within the vicinity made the same contribution
to the national measures as the occurrence of disease in the 25 mile clause case (indeed, the danger was the occurrence of disease) but that contribution was enough under one policy but not another. You can do this with express words too, by stating in the
policy that the prevention or interruption must be ‘only’ caused by disease within the radius (see paras 196-7).
Third, causation is applied between the peril and the interruption, but then also to the loss when quantifying. And in prevention cases, there is a composite peril requiring disease to cause public
intervention to cause inability to use the premises etc. See e.g. the wording quoted at para 218. There are many causal connections required. It may matter.
Best,
Adam
From: Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>
Date: Monday, 18 January 2021 at 18:27
To: Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk>, "Prof. Jane Stapleton" <bjs48@cam.ac.uk>, Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Cc: Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com>, Neil Foster <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>, "obligations@uwo.ca" <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: [Spam?] RE: COVID, insurance and causation
With apologies for the bold text:
True enough, but not an argument available to those (unlike H&H) who think they're identifying an evaluation free, purely factual definition of "causation",
leaving the question of selection amongst "causes" to a different stage of the enquiry.
But your criticism, I thought, was at least partly directed at the
courts (in this case) confusing causation and contribution. And they don't think they're identifying such a definition of causation.
In addition, the cause v contribution distinction is a distinction that only tracks 'ordinary language' when you build in Hart&Honore-style additional limitations. So ordinary person doesn't
normally say that oxygen contributed to the destruction of the property when the arsonist sets it on fire. [I say 'normally' because there is, I believe, evidence that people's conclusions change when you ask them: 'from the perspective of physics,
did oxygen cause or contribute to the occurrence of the fire'?']. The cause/contribution distinction is a distinction that applies
once a filter has been applied to but-for/NESS conditions. [Granted it's a little misleading to say 'a filter is applied' because this suggests we start with all but-for conditions then narrow them down, but that's not how people think.]
That is because it is common to confuse together the question of whether the defendant is responsible for the outcome with that of whether he caused it.
Of course each of them is responsible. That is what is causing you to say that they each caused it. I say they're each responsible, and each contributed, but neither alone caused his death.
I think to test whether that is what is causing me to say that, we should think of cases not involving responsibility or blame. Suppose that my house
lies between two mountains. There is a large rock on each mountain: Rock 1 and Rock 2. One day, each rock rolls down its mountain and damages my house. Each rock is sufficient to destroy the house. Is it true that Rock 1
caused the destruction of my house? I'd still say yes. Now, you might say my intuitions about causation are so hard-wired to track blame and responsibility that these continue to drive the judgment even in these cases. Maybe, but I think the jury is
out.
From: Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk>
Sent: 18 January 2021 17:57
To: Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>; Prof. Jane Stapleton <bjs48@cam.ac.uk>; Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Cc: Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com>; Neil Foster <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>; obligations@uwo.ca <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: [Spam?] RE: COVID, insurance and causation
True enough, but not an argument available to those (unlike H&H) who think they're identifying an evaluation free, purely factual definition of "causation", leaving the question
of selection amongst "causes" to a different stage of the enquiry.
That is because it is common to confuse together the question of whether the defendant is responsible for the outcome with that of whether he caused it. Of course each of them
is responsible. That is what is causing you to say that they each caused it. I say they're each responsible, and each contributed, but neither alone caused his death.
We should try to give different labels to different things. Different things include
I think in ordinary English usage, the core meanings of these are
And we should try to use them, and not think that to contribute is to cause, or to cause is to be responsible, or to be responsible it is necessary to have caused.
I am relieved to read that. I thought I was going mad, and not spotting where they went back to it.
From: Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>
Sent: 18 January 2021 17:34
To: Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk>; Prof. Jane Stapleton <bjs48@cam.ac.uk>; Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Cc: Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com>; Neil Foster <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>; obligations@uwo.ca <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: [Spam?] RE: COVID, insurance and causation
Thanks Jane, Rob, Matthew.
Re Jane's point [2]. Possibly I am being uncharitable to the court, but it seems to me that they see the parties' [objectively ascertained/generated]
intentions as determining which causal concept should be applied, not only the relevant test of "proximate causation". See [195]:
195. We do not consider it reasonable to attribute to the parties an intention that in such circumstances the question whether business interruption losses
were caused by cases of a notifiable disease occurring within the radius is to be answered by asking whether or to what extent, but for those cases of disease, business interruption loss would have been suffered as a result of cases of disease occurring outside
the radius. Not only would this potentially give rise to intractable counterfactual questions but, more fundamentally, it seems to us contrary to the commercial intent of the clause to treat uninsured cases of a notifiable disease occurring outside the
territorial scope of the cover as depriving the policyholder of an indemnity in respect of interruption also caused by cases of disease which the policy is expressed to cover.
As formulated this seems to me to involve an element of begging the question. The reasoning goes: we cannot adopt a but-for interpretation of 'cause' in the policy as that would deprive the policyholder
of an entitlement they would have if we adopt a non-but-for concept of cause. But that already assumes the parties accepted the non-but-for cause concept in the first place, such that applying the but-for test would amount to 'depriving' them of an entitlement
they otherwise would have. It would be more persuasive, I think, for the court simply to say that we can reasonably assume the parties intended to use causal language in an ordinary way (and ordinary language supports a non-but-for concept of cause) and the
commercial context doesn't provide a reason for departure from that assumption.
Re Rob's points:
As we know, for any (determined) outcome, there are many, many, necessary conditions of the occurrence of that outcome. But, as we also know, in most contexts, people only identify one (or less
than all) of the conditions as 'the cause'. So, to take Hart & Honore's example, we say it was the arsonist, not the oxygen who was "the cause" of the fire. H&H's explanation: the arsonist is singled out because their conduct was a voluntary act (in their,
rather specialised, sense of 'voluntary'). Another explanation: the arsonist's conduct is singled out because it is
abnormal and one variety of abnormality is normative (rather than
statistical) abnormality. Suppose one of these two views correctly identifies the principle by which "the cause" is identified amongst all of the necessary conditions of an outcome. It follows that it makes perfect sense to say that one event was "the
cause" of an outcome. This is because one event can be the only voluntary act in play or the only
abnormal event in play (if there are multiple abnormal events, then there are multiple
causes). [All of the debates about whether the law ought to employ this concept of cause, or employ a non-discriminatory concept of cause, and employ [what are claimed to be] non-causal limitations on liability are downstream issues. The point just
made relates to the application of one concept of cause, not its employment in legal rules.]
2. and 3.
"It would be useful to have different words in English that capture the difference between "X is a necessary condition of Y" and "X is a
necessary element of a set of conditions jointly sufficient to [cause] Y" (or the variations on the latter). It would be helpful to capture what people mean when they seek to distinguish "a cause" from vanilla "cause."
Luckily for us, we do. 28,000 people voted for the successful candidate in my constituency in East Oxford. 10,000 for the nearest loser. If I voted for the winner,
did I cause her election? No. Did I *contribute* to her election? Yes. "
The claim here is that the distinction between 'X being a necessary condition of Y' and 'X being a necessary element of a set of conditions jointly sufficient for Y' is captured by the distinction
in ordinary language between 'causing' and 'contributing'. I'm not sure about this - perhaps we should collect people's linguistic intuitions - but I think this is probably false. In the standard example (given in the judgment) of two bullets fired at third
person, both striking the third in the head, each bullet is a NESS cause, but not necessary for the outcome. To my ears (and to the court's ears, it seems) it sounds fine to say that each
caused the person's death.
At any rate, the important thing is to be clear on whether being necessary for an outcome is necessary for liability or whether being a NESS, or satisfying Jane's extended but-for test, or some
other non-simply-necessity-based test will do. I doubt that the point will be made sufficiently clear simply by using the terms 'cause' and 'contribution' or conversely that there will a great disservice to clarity if we don't adopt that terminology.
5. "Is there a hidden application of "but for" here? So it is only if the restaurant would not have shut "but for" covid, and covid cases
are in the 25 mile radius, that a claim is possible. The insured event must be a set of the thing that caused the closure?"
The court clearly accepts that some counterfactuals are relevant, as the star chef example at [232] shows. Whether they think it is relevant to
causation or to Jane's third issue [3] is less clear. They say that the distinction between the chef case and the present case is to be found 'elsewhere' in the judgment, without saying where (!) The chef comes up at [236] again but not really in answer
to this point.
You could re-package the whole result in but-for terms in the way suggested - but it looks like the re-packaging is being driven by reasons external to the but-for test.
The court presumably would explain the distinction between the chef case and the case itself in terms of the objective intentions of the parties. But I am sceptical of this for the reason
Matthew mentioned.
Re Matthew's points:
I agree there is an interesting parallel to
Lewis v ACT and Jobling. The rubbish restaurant/star chef example is a
Jobling/Lewis case, if you like: a situation in which 'it would have happened anyway' defeats the claim.
In tort, though, it seems relatively clear that in claims for
loss, assuming the breach is causally responsible for damage (here I'm setting aside whether there is a non-loss-based, non-restitutionary, non-punitive damages claim, like Rob's 'substitutive' damages), you generally take into account independent
non-wrongful events in the loss counterfactual, but not independent wrongful events. Hence the distinction between
Baker v Willoughby and Jobling.
In the Covid insurance case, the court wants to draw a distinction, in terms of the loss counterfactual, between non-wrongful events - the star chef/rubbish restaurant v the occurrence
of the restrictions in any event due to disease cases outside of the radius.
I think a justification of the distinction goes something like this. The policy protects against (business) loss
caused by occurrence of disease in the radius. The parties can be presumed to use causal language in the ordinary way, absent contrary indication, so
cause extends beyond the but-for test. The next question is what loss was caused by the occurrence of the disease within the radius (Jane's [3], essentially).
What does 'loss' mean? Here are four possibilities:
(1) Worse off than the policy-holder was before the event
(2) Worse off than the policy-holder would have been but-for the occurrence in the radius
(3) Worse off than the policy-holder would have been but-for the occurrence of the disease in the radius and elsewhere
(4) Worse off than the policy-holder would have been but-for the occurrence of the disease in the radius and elsewhere and the materialisation of inherent risks of business
(1) is clearly no good, since it would rule out any lost profits of the business.
(2) and (3)? Given that we can't elicit any clear intention of parties as between (2) or (3), perhaps (3) can be justified on the basis that it doesn't make the policy holder's rights valueless across a wide category
of cases. You might say this interpretation is justified by an abstract shared intention of the parties that their bargain be reasonable, but I doubt the existence of this intention, and whether it is necessary to justify the conclusion.
If we accept that the policy-holder has to show they are worse off relative to a counterfactual baseline, it seems difficult for them to argue that (4) is the plausible baseline. But something like (4) would be
necessary to bring in the rubbish restaurant/star chef example. The argument in the last paragraph doesn't apply: we don't
need to adopt that interpretation of the loss counterfactual to avoid the policy-holder's rights being valueless across a wide category of cases. If (4) were the correct baseline, then the policy would serve to make the policy-holder better off than
the occurrence of the risk against which they were aiming to protect themselves, and would also expose the insurer to an extremely unpredictable liability.
Best,
Sandy
From: Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk>
Sent: 18 January 2021 14:10
To: Prof. Jane Stapleton <bjs48@cam.ac.uk>; Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Cc: Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>; Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com>; Neil Foster <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>; obligations@uwo.ca <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: [Spam?] RE: COVID, insurance and causation
Well, the result on one read through seems probably ok, but doing violence to the English language like this does the law no favours.
We shall indemnify You in respect of interruption or interference with the Business during the Indemnity Period following:
a. any
iii. occurrence of a Notifiable Disease within a radius of 25 miles of the Premises;
Indemnity Period shall mean the period during which the results of the Business shall be affected in consequence of the occurrence
Shorn of fights over the meaning in English of “X caused Y” the question of interpretation was about what “in consequence” means in this
context. Clearly not just “chronologically happens after.” There must be some kind of relation between the disease and the interruption.
Interpreting the (potentially very small) contribution of covid within 25 miles of the insured premises as sufficient to trigger the cover,
even though the restaurants would have been closed anyway but for that local outbreak, looks plausible, but I have some doubts. What about other contributions to the restaurant being shut or loss making? So the court hypothesise the case of a restaurant that
would have shut (or had its income reduced) anyway because its star chef was about to go on leave, and does so. There, it is said, indemnification would be unreasonable ([231]). But why is the contribution of the star chef leaving (an uninsured event) different
from the contribution of all of the covid-19 outside of the 25 mile radius (another uninsured event)?
Is there a hidden application of "but for" here? So it is only if the restaurant would not have shut "but for" covid, and covid cases are
in the 25 mile radius, that a claim is possible. The insured event must be a set of the thing that caused the closure?
Will have another read and think.
From: Prof. Jane Stapleton <bjs48@cam.ac.uk>
Sent: 18 January 2021 11:32
To: Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Cc: Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>; Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com>; Neil Foster <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>; obligations@uwo.ca <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: [Spam?] RE: COVID, insurance and causation
Dear All,
Here are a few thoughts.
J
[1] CONCEPT OF ‘A CAUSE’
The SC held that the insured peril (eg a COVID case within the relevant
geographical radius) was a cause of government action. I'm pleased that
the SC recognised that the concept of being 'a cause' in (at least)
private law is broader than being a necessary [ie but for] factor. Both
Richard Wright and I argue that private law does and should recognise
this broader concept of being ‘a cause’ regardless of context.
I believe my way of capturing this concept, the extended but-for test
[35 OJLS 697-726], is more forensically straightforward than NESS,
namely
- a factor is a cause of an injury if, but for it, (i) the injury would
not exist or (ii) an actual contribution to an element of the positive
requirements for the occurrence of the injury would not exist-
No one case of COVID was necessary for the govt action which led to the
business interruption, but each case made an actual contribution to the
prevalence of the disease which triggered that action, even if that
prevalence was oversubscribed (ie there were more cases than would have
been needed to trigger that action so that no case was alone necessary).
[2] ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS
Both Richard and I also argue that the concept of being ‘a cause’ is
distinct from another issue, namely which cause-consequence links are
relevant in the particular legal context. In other words, are additional
qualities of the cause-consequence link required before the claimant can
establish their case (eg legal responsibility in tort; policy cover in
insurance)? In the tort of negligence this issue is labelled remoteness
of damage (UK) or the scope of responsibility/liability (USA). In the
interpretation of insurance policies this separate issue has been given
a causal label: ‘proximate cause’.
In some identifiable contexts such as duress in contract, the additional
quality required of the cause-consequence link is that of necessity. In
FCA the insurers argued that the policies also set up this requirement
of necessity. However, the SC held
that the insured peril was a cause of government action (see [1] above)
and
that it was not the intention of the parties that the ‘proximate cause’
link between this cause and the government action also be one of
necessity. Adam has explained this conclusion on [2]: the parties must
have contemplated diseases going outside the relevant area; and this
indicated that the proximate cause test the parties intended to be
required was satisfied by the link between the local occurrences and the
national reaction even if the but for test was not satisfied because
"[195] it seems to us contrary to the commercial intent of the
clause to treat uninsured cases of a notifiable disease occurring
outside the territorial scope of the cover as depriving the policyholder
of an indemnity in respect of interruption also caused by cases of
disease which the policy is expressed to cover. We agree with the FCA’s
central argument in relation to the radius provisions that the parties
could not reasonably be supposed to have intended that cases of disease
outside the radius could be set up as a countervailing cause which
displaces the causal impact of the disease inside the radius."
[3] QUANTIFICATION OF LOSS
This is a distinct step that takes into account the ‘rubbish restaurant’
point Sandy makes.
On 2021-01-18 10:42, Matthew Hoyle wrote:
> Thanks Sandy and Neil and also, congratulations Adam.
>
> On Sandy’s point about a “rubbish restaurant” not having a
> claim, could the comparison not be made to the debate which was had on
> this group some months ago regarding the Australian case where a man
> was imprisoned falsely but could have been imprisoned lawfully
> (apologies, the name escapes me). I think Rob Stevens took the view
> that a person who was always going to be imprisoned hadn’t
> “lost” anything in a particular, backward looking sense. That was
> a controversial example but it seems the “rubbish restaurant” is
> more in line with the orthodox concept of defamed person with what
> turns out to be a terrible reputation or perhaps a case like Jobling v
> Ass. Dairies, where the claimant didn’t really have a back worth (in
> damages terms) the same as a “normal back” to begin with.
>
> As you say, it may just be a question of interpretation: but then that
> engages a general gripe about “standard form” contract cases which
> take no account of the particular factual matrix between the parties
> (this case in particular, as most business who actually signed the
> contracts weren’t represented). The idea that small businesses
> signing an insurance contract can be objectively construed as them
> agreeing to these complex causation concepts seems bizarre. Of course
> there is an instrumental reason for construing all the same wordings
> and clauses in insurance contracts in the same way, but I don’t
> think you are really engaging in an exercise of contractual
> interpretation at that point as you are in a case like e.g. Arnold v
> Britton.
>
> From: Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>
> Sent: 18 January 2021 10:16
> To: Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com>; Neil Foster
> <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>; obligations@uwo.ca
> Subject: [Spam?] Re: COVID, insurance and causation
>
> Thanks, Neil and congratulations on the result, Adam! Good for
> academics working on the law of causation, and some incidental
> benefits for small businesses, I believe.
>
> It'll be interesting to see if the remarks on the possibility of
> causation being satisfied without the but-for test being satisfied
> (which have been made judicially before, though perhaps not as
> lucidly) have much impact beyond this context. On the one hand, the
> UKSC sets out the usual mantra that causal questions 'depend upon the
> context' but, on the other, the majority's remarks at [181]-[185] are
> pretty broad.
>
> One thing that interests me is the interaction between the concepts of
> causation and "loss" here. Normally, causation and loss are bound up
> with each other because both embed the same counterfactual: causation
> is tested by the but-for test, and so, ultimately, is loss. Adopting
> some views non-but-for views about causation (e.g. NESS) requires or
> allows one to pull these questions apart. "Causation" can be satisfied
> without the but-for test being satisfied. Some would then say, in tort
> or contract, that there is no loss when the caused event would have
> happened anyway due to non-wrongful events, but there is loss when
> the caused event would have happened anyway due to wrongful events.
>
> It's not really clear, though, how to apply those ideas about loss in
> this insurance context. The UKSC here forbids the insurer's causation
> (and, implicitly, loss) counterfactual which posits that the impact on
> the business would have happened anyway but-for the Covid cases in a
> 25 mile radius. But it allows the insurer to deny loss by reference to
> the following counterfactual: what would have happened but-for the
> lockdown restrictions in that area? So if a restaurant would have had
> no income anyway, even without the restrictions, because it is a
> rubbish restaurant, then clearly there is no loss. So I wonder if
> there is any general principle that can be derived as to which
> counterfactuals are permitted and which forbidden. One thought is that
> a loss counterfactual is not permitted if it relies upon the
> occurrence of events that constitute the defendant's liability to the
> claimant or another person. But perhaps this ultimately just boils
> down the interpretation of the contracts.
>
> One other quick point. I'm not sure one ought without more to think of
> this as an application of NESS. That only follows if NESS is the only
> contender for analysing causation in cases when the but-for test is
> not satisfied. It isn't. At most, the result is consistent with NESS.
>
>
> All best
>
> Sandy
>
> -------------------------
>
> From: Adam Kramer <akramer@3vb.com>
> Sent: 18 January 2021 09:26
> To: Neil Foster <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>; obligations@uwo.ca
> <obligations@uwo.ca>
> Subject: Re: COVID, insurance and causation
>
> Thanks Neil.
>
> I was one of the FCA’s successful counsel team, so have lived this
> for nine months.
>
> The Supreme Court was persuaded that as a matter of proper
> construction of the policies, which are expressly triggered by
> notifiable diseases which is a small set of the more dangerous or
> infectious human diseases including SARS, they must have contemplated
> diseases going outside the relevant area and that the main route to
> interruption would be via public authority intervention responding to
> the disease.
>
> That being the case, the proximate cause test the parties would have
> intended to be required to be satisfied was satisfied by the link
> between the local occurrences and the national reaction (which Matt
> Hancock at one pojnt helpfully confirmed was a response to the cases
> all over the country), even if the but for test was not satisfied.
> I.e. the parties would not have intended the but for test to be
> applied to the local occurrences but only the larger set of which they
> comprise a part. Analogies were legal defence costs insurance
> (responds to cover legal expenses incurred for covered disputes even
> if also jointly incurred for uninsured disputes and so would have been
> incurred even but for the insured peril; SC jment 186-8), and the The
> Silversea C of A case (coverage for public actions responding to 9/11
> attacks does not require that the disruption is but for caused by the
> public actions where it was co-caused by the attacks themselves; SC
> jment 241).
>
> So yes, the result was a form of NESS I think—the ‘set’ was
> drawn by the policy, which must have contemplate that the insured
> peril (disease within the radius; or, in other clauses, public
> authority response to the disease) not compete with other consequences
> of the underlying fortuity (COVID-19 itself), meaning that they must
> be treated as a single set (terminology not used in the case).
>
> Also of interest is the overturning of Orient-Express (damage-related
> BI cover: but for the hurricane damage to the property, Hamblen J had
> found that the loss would still have been suffered due to the
> hurricane damage to the rest of New Orleans). Hamblen J was the judge
> in Orient-Express, Leggatt QC was arbitrator in Orient-Express, they
> both appeared in the Supreme Court in this case and graciously
> overruled themselves (SC jment 297-311), citing US judge Jackson:
>
> _“Precedent, however, is not lacking for ways by which a judge may
> recede from a prior opinion that has proven untenable and perhaps
> misled others. See Chief Justice Taney, License Cases, 5 How 504,
> recanting views he had pressed upon the Court as Attorney General of
> Maryland in Brown v Maryland, 12 Wheat 419. Baron Bramwell extricated
> himself from a somewhat similar embarrassment by saying, ‘The matter
> does not appear to me now as it appears to have appeared to me
> then.’ Andrew v Styrap, 26 LTR (NS) 704, 706. And Mr Justice Story,
> accounting for his contradiction of his own former opinion, quite
> properly put the matter: ‘My own error, however, can furnish no
> ground for its being adopted by this Court. ...’ United States v
> Gooding, 12 Wheat 460, 25 US 478. Perhaps Dr Johnson really went to
> the heart of the matter when he explained a blunder in his dictionary
> - ‘Ignorance, sir, ignorance.’ But an escape less
> self-depreciating was taken by Lord Westbury, who, it is said,
> rebuffed a barrister’s reliance upon an earlier opinion of his
> Lordship: ‘I can only say that I am amazed that a man of my
> intelligence should have been guilty of giving such an opinion.’ If
> there are other ways of gracefully and good naturedly surrendering
> former views to a better considered position, I invoke them all.”_
>
> Best,
>
> Adam Kramer
>
> From: Neil Foster <neil.foster@newcastle.edu.au>
> Date: Monday, 18 January 2021 at 06:09
> To: "obligations@uwo.ca" <obligations@uwo.ca>
> Subject: ODG: COVID, insurance and causation
>
> Dear Colleagues;
>
> I have been holding off posting about the decision of the UK Supreme
> Court in _The Financial Conduct Authority & Ors v Arch Insurance (UK)
> Ltd & Ors_ [2021] UKSC 1 (15 January 2021)
> _http://www.bailii.org/uk/cases/UKSC/2021/1.html _in the hope that
> someone else would dive into the shark-infested waters first! But
> since I see no takers let me venture in.
>
> The case is something of an “advisory opinion” being provided at
> the request of a government regulator and a number of insurance
> companies relating to the issues around whether “business
> interruption” insurance policies respond to the costs incurred by
> having to close down businesses due to the lockdown requirements
> imposed by the UK government. There is a lot here relating to
> insurance principles that I will not be commenting on. But I
> couldn’t ignore the detailed discussion of causation that the
> majority (LORD HAMBLEN AND LORD LEGGATT, with whom Lord Reed agrees)
> enters into.
>
> Now I want to acknowledge up front that the case does not directly
> concern causation as an element of the law of negligence. It is about
> “causation for insurance purposes”. The majority note that for
> insurance purposes the accepted approach is to ask whether there is
> “proximate causation” between the event and the policy (see eg
> [163]). But the comments on causation seem at least likely to be
> influential when a court has to come to explore liability issues in
> tort.
>
> The main issue seems to be this: the majority read the common form of
> business interruption clause in relation to “disease” as having
> the meaning that the clause will only respond to “the effects of
> cases of COVID-19 occurring within the specified radius of the insured
> premises” (at [161]), usually within a radius of 25 miles. The
> complaint is about the government shut-down rules, which of course
> affected the whole country. But when considering any one case of
> COVID-19, can it really be said this case was a cause of the shut-down
> rules? In other words, no individual example of the disease can be
> said to be a “but-for” cause of the government shut-down rules. As
> they say at [179]:
>
> “if - as the insurers submit - the relevant test in considering the
> Government measures taken in March 2020 is to ask whether the
> Government would have acted in the same way on the counterfactual
> assumption that there were no cases of COVID-19 within 25 miles of the
> policyholder’s premises but all the other cases elsewhere in the
> country had occurred as they in fact did, the answer must, in relation
> to any particular policy, be that it probably would have acted in the
> same way.”
>
> Hence the question was whether the specific instances covered by the
> clause, “caused” the damage.
>
> Again, keeping in mind that this was an insurance question not a
> liability question, the majority end up approaching the case through
> the lens of the various approaches that have been put forward dealing
> with “over-determined” causation- the classic example “one house
> hit by 2 fires each of which would have caused the harm”, or “one
> hunter hit by two bullets at the same time each of which would have
> killed him”- see [182] ff. They cite Professor Stapleton and
> Professor Wright- see [183]-[185], and [189].
>
> In the end I think the analysis they apply is in effect an example of
> the NESS approach, or the approach suggested by Prof Stapleton, if
> those two approaches are different. The example at [184] is I think
> instructive:
>
> “184. A hypothetical case adapted from an example given by Professor
> Stapleton, which was discussed in oral argument on these appeals,
> postulates 20 individuals who all combine to push a bus over a cliff.
> Assume it is shown that only, say, 13 or 14 people would have been
> needed to bring about that result. It could not then be said that the
> participation of any given individual was either necessary or
> sufficient to cause the destruction of the bus. Yet it seems
> appropriate to describe each person’s involvement as a cause of the
> loss. Treating the “but for” test as a minimum threshold which
> must always be crossed if X is to be regarded as a cause of Y would
> again lead to the absurd conclusion that no one’s actions caused the
> bus to be destroyed.”
>
> I think this is helpful because at one point it is accepted that the
> whole of Great Britain could be covered by about 20 circles of 25 mile
> radius. Let’s suppose business X in one of those circles, Y. Let’s
> further suppose that the government would not have introduced lockdown
> if only one circle had COVID-19, but it would do so if, say, 13
> circles did. Then to show that the COVID in circle Y was a cause of
> the lockdown, under the NESS approach, all one need to do would be to
> show that circle Y was a necessary element of a sufficient set (12
> other circles and circle Y) which led to the lockdown.
>
> I think this works, though of course in a list which includes the
> relevant experts I am open to being corrected!
>
> Interested to hear other views, if any.
>
> Regards
>
> Neil
>
> NEIL FOSTER
>
> Associate Professor, Newcastle Law School
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> College of Human and Social Futures
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